The righteous man wisely considereth the house of the wicked: but God overthroweth the wicked for their wickedness. KJV

I wanted to see what "considereth" meant here so I went to some other versions.

Most of them change the "righteous man" to God. I can't find any reasoning for that interpretation, not in the interlinear or parsing of words. Just seems weird to me. In taking it with the rest of the Bible, I took it to be saying that a righteous man would take into consideration "the house of the wicked" - like they might want to avoid it, be prepared before going near it, be wise in their actions and words if needing to go there, etc.

Without knowing Hebrew (but, having studied Greek and the absolute tiniest bit of Hebrew) - this is my guess about the translational difference:

The original probably says, "The Righteous" without the word "man" which would leave the translator to try to figure out whether it implied the word "Man" or if it meant to indicate "The Righteous ONE" - Who would be God.

Hebrew & Greek Poetry involves Parallelism - which is to say it tends to say something, then re-say the same thing - or something on the same theme - a different way. The fact that the second half clearly states "God" may lead many translators to opt for the second option.

_________________
http://stuffedveggies.blogspot.com/

But, Proverbs is "famous" for it's compare and contrast as WELL as its "parallelisms".

Yup - and Psalms, too : )

_________________
http://stuffedveggies.blogspot.com/